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The Semi-Permeable Membranes of the Various Protestantisms
Journal
Written by Entity   
Tuesday, 21 July 2009 08:25

From Inside Catholic:

One basic rule of thumb to understand in Catholic/Protestant conversations is that it is not the case that Catholics rely on Sacred Tradition and Protestants don't. Rather, Catholics (and by this I mean "educated Catholics speaking out of the Magisterial teaching of the Church") rely on Sacred Tradition and know they do, while Protestants rely on (parts) of Sacred Tradition and (usually) don't know they do.

So, for instance, despite Paul's prescriptions (directed only at clergy of his day) that a man must be the husband of but one wife, nowhere in the text of Scripture is it made clear that Christian marriage must be monogamous for all (a fact that did not escape Luther or John Milton). Nowhere does Scripture spell out that the Holy Spirit is a person, much less the Third Person of the Blessed Trinity, consubstantial with the Father and the Son. Similarly, you will look in vain for instructions in Scripture on how to contract a valid marriage

 

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Entity  - Curious   |2009-07-21 09:28:40
I'm particularly curious as to hear the opinions of those who have converted from being Protestants to Orthodox or Catholic or vice versa. (Of course, all opinions are welcome, but these people have seen both sides of the issue.)
holmegm   |2009-07-21 10:29:28
article wrote:
One basic rule of thumb to understand in Catholic/Protestant conversations is that it is not the case that Catholics rely on Sacred Tradition and Protestants don't. Rather, Catholics (and by this I mean "educated Catholics speaking out of the Magisterial teaching of the Church") rely on Sacred Tradition and know they do, while Protestants rely on (parts) of Sacred Tradition and (usually) don't know they do.


It's difficult to decide how to respond to such a straw man argument.

It's easier, I suppose, than engaging with the actual Reformation ...
Entity   |2009-07-21 10:31:30
The author was formerly a Protestant, so he has been on that 'strawman' side before.
holmegm   |2009-07-21 10:45:41
Well, I'm sorry that *he* thought there was nothing at all to learn from tradition :)

You can't read Luther or Calvin, say, and seriously come away thinking that they just throw all tradition (or "the witness of the church", as Calvin often puts it) in the dustbin.
emperorbma   |2009-07-21 13:18:24
Oddly enough, Luther even refers to the "Divine tradition" in his case against the Papacy. (line 13-15)

Quote:
Again the Council of Nice determined that bishops should be elected by their own churches, in the presence of some neighboring bishop or of several.  The same was observed also in the West and in the Latin churches, as Cyprian and Augustine testify. For Cyprian says in his fourth letter to Cornelius: Accordingly, as regards the divine observance and apostolic practice, you must diligently keep and practice what is also observed among us and in almost all the provinces, that for celebrating ordination properly, whatsoever bishops of the same province live nearest should come together with the people for whom a pastor is being appointed, and the bishop should be chosen in the presence of the people, who most fully know the life of each one, which we also have seen done among us at the ordination of our colleague Sabinus, that by the suffrage of the entire brotherhood, and by the judgment of the bishops who had assembled in their presence, the episcopate was conferred and hands laid on him.

Cyprian calls this custom a divine tradition and an apostolic observance, and affirms that it is observed in almost all the provinces.

Since, therefore, neither ordination nor confirmation was sought from a bishop of Rome in the greater part of the world in the Latin and Greek churches, it is sufficiently apparent that the churches did not then accord superiority and domination to the bishop of Rome.
CoffeeZombie   |2009-07-21 16:28:19
But that justification, IMO, only really works in a world without the Eastern Orthodox Church (which is largely the "world" as the West saw it throughout the Reformation).

Certainly, Luther and other Reformers could appeal to Tradition in their rejection of the Papacy; the Orthodox Church would agree with them on many of those points. The Papacy? Indulgences? Heck, the whole idea of Purgatory? Even some of what the Roman Church says about Mary! These are things the Orthodox see as innovations in Roman dogma.

Had the Reformers simply discarded those errant traditions of Rome, they may well have reunited with the Orthodox Church.

However, they only discarded some of Rome's errant traditions, and in the case of the ones they did discard, they went overboard and "threw the baby out with the bathwater."
emperorbma   |2009-07-21 17:33:02
Well, I can reply to this with two points:
First of all, even though I implicitly agree with Luther's argument, I wasn't using his argument in its declarative sense but, rather, as evidence that Luther didn't actually reject Sacred Tradition even in the very works which placed him at obvious odds with the Papacy.

Secondly, Luther's argument here was, itself, part of a larger context which also discusses Peter's relationship to Paul and the logical inconsistency of having a "sole head bishop of Christianity" when Christ Himself already fulfills that office, into which the Sacred Tradition factors as strong evidence.
emperorbma   |2009-07-21 17:34:57
Quote:
Had the Reformers simply discarded those errant traditions of Rome, they may well have reunited with the Orthodox Church.

Last addendum, hopefully...
I'm also pretty aware the early Lutheran Confessors had some dialogue with the Eastern Orthodox. The contact shows that even with the consensus on some of Rome's perceived errors, that there are other points of disagreement. This basically remains a fair assessment of the situation even to this day.  That said, there's certainly a lot more in common with the Eastern Orthodox and early Lutheran Protestantism than there was with the Roman Catholic Scholastic tradition...
CoffeeZombie   |2009-07-22 08:57:10
Which goes right in line with what I was saying: Even the Lutherans did not jettison all the errors of Rome, and where they did jettison them, they went overboard.

Regardless, the biggest issue with Lutherianism is that it made itself the criterion of Truth. This is what happens when you reserve to yourself the right to stand in judgement of the Tradition you have received.

Of course, the Lutherians appealed to a "higher authority" in their claim of sola scriptura, but all they really did was end up setting up a Tradition of their own (the Book of Concord, etc.).

The dialogue with the Orthodox seems to underscore that. I don't know a lot about what has been said, but from what I have heard, it sounds like the Lutherians had already decided on such doctrines as sola fide and were expecting the Patriarch to agree with them.

At that time, there were essentially two major claimants to being the true Church: the Roman Church, and the Orthodox Church. A logic that places oneself under Tradition would seem to lead one to the solution that, if the Roman Church is wrong, then the Orthodox Church must be it. The Lutherans had the opportunity to rejoin the Orthodox Church, but didn't, and insisted on doing their own thing.

Of course, most of this (aside from the dialogue with Constantinople) applies also to the Calvinists and other Reformers. I don't want you to think I'm just picking on Lutherans here. ;-)
emperorbma   |2009-07-23 18:45:26
Quote:
Even the Lutherans did not jettison all the errors of Rome, and where they did jettison them, they went overboard.


Well, to be fair, we did have different perspectives of just what the "errors of Rome" were even though there were some common points of agreement. For example, we saw no pressing need to revert the filioque clause from the Nicene Creed that the Lutheran Confesssors entered into the Book of Concord.

Quote:
The dialogue with the Orthodox seems to underscore that. I don't know a lot about what has been said, but from what I have heard, it sounds like the Lutherians had already decided on such doctrines as sola fide and were expecting the Patriarch to agree with them.


Well, it is pretty implicit to our understanding of the nature of the Christian faith. Of course, on that note, we also see vestiges of the same sola fide sentiment that we are gearing towards even amongst those Christians who deny the formal claim thereof...

It's sort of like how the Orthodox and Catholics are stymied by the Protestants who claim they have no tradition, but really have one anyway. We're basically speaking past each other to the point that communication is moot.

Quote:
At that time, there were essentially two major claimants to being the true Church: the Roman Church, and the Orthodox Church. A logic that places oneself under Tradition would seem to lead one to the solution that, if the Roman Church is wrong, then the Orthodox Church must be it. The Lutherans had the opportunity to rejoin the Orthodox Church, but didn't, and insisted on doing their own thing.


That presumes an ecclesiology that requires a visible infrastructure in the maintenance of its descent. Protestant ecclesiology has always understood the Church in the same manner as the eternal Communion of Saints, with the visible structures as only a temporary and limited manifestation thereof.

Quote:
Of course, most of this (aside from the dialogue with Constantinople) applies also to the Calvinists and other Reformers. I don't want you to think I'm just picking on Lutherans here. ;-)


It's entirely all right... We live as we are called, and you've got to defend your branch of the Vine as much as we've got to defend ours.
emperorbma   |2009-07-23 20:36:18
Quote:
temporary


... ups... that should read "temporal."  Similar meaning, different connotation. :)
CoffeeZombie   |2009-07-24 13:49:11
Before I start, let me just say that Google's Wave will make these kinds of discussions much easier. ;-)

emperorbma wrote:
Well, to be fair, we did have different perspectives of just what the "errors of Rome" were even though there were some common points of agreement. For example, we saw no pressing need to revert the filioque clause from the Nicene Creed that the Lutheran Confesssors entered into the Book of Concord.


Right; my point was that, if the Lutherans really were concerned about following the Traditions sent by God, they would have perhaps taken a bit more seriously the fact that their understanding of Christianity was different from the Orthodox.

Then again, I have to admit a couple things:

1) I can understand, finding themselves forced to break from Rome, they may not exactly be trusting of another Church.

2) The Reformers did get a bit of a raw deal. Roman errors had seriously muddied the waters, and I suppose it is understandable that the Reformers would have trouble discerning the Tradition from the Roman innovations.

So, perhaps I am being a bit harsh in my assessment here.

Quote:
Well, it is pretty implicit to our understanding of the nature of the Christian faith. Of course, on that note, we also see vestiges of the same sola fide sentiment that we are gearing towards even amongst those Christians who deny the formal claim thereof...

It's sort of like how the Orthodox and Catholics are stymied by the Protestants who claim they have no tradition, but really have one anyway. We're basically speaking past each other to the point that communication is moot.


Honestly, I think part of the problem is a difference between how the East and West understand extremely fundamental aspects of the Faith. We use similar words, but by them mean totally different things.

By this, I'm referring to the understanding of what the nature of our fall and the nature of salvation is. In the West, it developed into, primarily, a "legal framework," which, in Catholicism, became a system of merits. In Protestantism the system of merits was not entirely rejected; rather, it was reworked so that it all happened in one moment (I think this "merit" idea is really what the Faith vs. Works is about).

In the East, we don't have "merits" and all that. Rather, sin is seen primarily as a sickness, and Death is the enemy that Christ conquered by His Resurrection. The ultimate end of salvation is what we call theosis or deification; as we are healed, by God's grace, from sin, we are made like God. As St. Athanasus, I belive it was, put it, "God became man so that man, by grace, might become God."

An example of this is the practice of penance. I hope that Entity will correct me here if I misrepresent the Catholic view. From what I understand, though, the Catholic view of penance is that the penance is for the purpose of paying the temporal debt (Christ having paid the eternal debt) for the sin we confessed. As such, the priest always assigns a penance.

In the Orthodox Church, we view the penance differently. A penance does not earn forgiveness in any way; God has already forgiven us. We make our confession, and the priest prays the prayer asking that God forgive us all the things we've confessed, and then says "and taking no further care for the things you have confessed, depart in peace." So the purpose of penance is to help us heal from the sin we've committed. It may be 100 Jesus Prayers, or it may be something else. If you've stolen, perhaps the penance would be to return what you stole, or to give to the poor. Most of the time, though, the priest may not assign a penance.

God gives us grace, but we have the choice whether to work with that grace and become more like Him, or to work against that grace and become more like the Devil.

Quote:
That presumes an ecclesiology that requires a visible infrastructure in the maintenance of its descent. Protestant ecclesiology has always understood the Church in the same manner as the eternal Communion of Saints, with the visible structures as only a temporary and limited manifestation thereof.


Protestant "always" = 500 years (since the time of the Reformers). Orthodox "always" = 2000 years (since the time of Christ). And the Orthodox have "always" understood the Church in the same manner as the Body of Christ, united by the Bishop ("where the Bishop is, there is the Church"), each Bishop being in communion with the others.

This was one of the biggest issues for me that brought me to Orthodoxy; the more I learned about Church History (both from reading about the history and from reading translations from some of the Fathers themselves), the more I realized that the Church in the early centuries did not have any concept of an "invisible Church." St. Ignatius, a disciple of St. John the Apostle, in almost all of his letters stresses the visible unity of the Church under the Bishop.

And this is why Paul responds to those who say "I am of Paul" and "I am of Apollos" and "I am of Christ" by saying "Christ is not divided." What would be wrong with one "visible church" with a tradition that emphasized Paul, and another "visible church" with a tradition that emphasized Apollos, and another "visible church" that claimed to only follow Christ, and so on, as long as they all believed in the same God, and the same Lord, and so on? They're all part of the "invisible Church", even though they are in separate "visible churches." And, yet, Paul rebukes them, saying "Christ is not divided."

And how could Paul call the Church "the pillar and ground of truth" if he's referring to some invisible body?

Of course, if you don't believe that there is one Church that has kept the Faith without erring, you're pretty much stuck with the "invisible Church;" I however, believe that the Church that Christ founded through His Apostles still exists, and still holds fast to the "faith that was once delivered to the saints.
emperorbma   |2009-07-24 16:43:17
Quote:
Right; my point was that, if the Lutherans really were concerned about following the Traditions sent by God, they would have perhaps taken a bit more seriously the fact that their understanding of Christianity was different from the Orthodox.


From what I have read of the Lutheran Confessors, I detected no lack of sincerity in their intention to keep the true doctrines of the Christian faith. I'm not convinced that the only pursuit, other than Roman Catholicism, which can entail a respect for the Christian tradition (i.e. not contrary to Gospel, or man-made additions; which are what we criticize) is Eastern Orthodoxy. It's possible there was a lack of trust or some leftover baggage from the Western tradition, but I don't think it necessarily follows that what was kept was wrong or errant. That's ultimately going to have to be something that God will judge, though...

Quote:
In the East, we don't have "merits" and all that. Rather, sin is seen primarily as a sickness, and Death is the enemy that Christ conquered by His Resurrection. The ultimate end of salvation is what we call theosis or deification; as we are healed, by God's grace, from sin, we are made like God. As St. Athanasus, I belive it was, put it, "God became man so that man, by grace, might become God."


Would you be surprised, then, if Luther talks more about theosis than justification? (ref) It seems to me that your complaint was not exactly falling on deaf ears here. On the other hand, it's also clear Luther didn't think all of Augustine's innovations were heretical either.

Put another way, I think that Luther was ultimately trying to create a synthesis of what the Eastern and Western traditions got right. Like it or not, while we disagree with Rome on certain issues, we often find ourselves agreeing with other issues that Catholics find important.  The thing is that with so few around to appreciate and implement his stroke of genius, the Reformation ended up being forced off onto ts own separate road by the defenders of the Papal status quo.

Quote:
God gives us grace, but we have the choice whether to work with that grace and become more like Him, or to work against that grace and become more like the Devil.


Yeah, you probably will find the Formula of Concord on the topic of free will to be rather interesting. The Lutheran doctrine only takes issue with "free will" in the sense that it refers to man's will apart from God. Without grace working first, no man will be converted. That said, the "new will" which is created in those who have faith is entirely capable of not only cooperation with God, but desiring Godly ends as well because it is an instrument of the Holy Ghost. Quoting from the FC-SD, "as soon as the Holy Ghost, as has been said, through the Word and holy Sacraments, has begun in us this His work of regeneration and renewal, it is certain that through the power of the Holy Ghost we can and should cooperate, although still in great weakness."

Interestingly enough, although that was clearly not in a manner which a Lutheran would describe the situation, the net conclusion of this is essentially the same as you described: a person can, by grace alone, choose God, or by his own "free will" alone turn away. But, without grace, man can't choose God, either by free will, or by anything else.

Quote:
Protestant "always" = 500 years (since the time of the Reformers). Orthodox "always" = 2000 years (since the time of Christ). And the Orthodox have "always" understood the Church in the same manner as the Body of Christ, united by the Bishop ("where the Bishop is, there is the Church"), each Bishop being in communion with the others.


See, here I thought that Christ was the "Bishop of our souls." (1 Peter 2:25) The theology of the Bishop (which Lutherans believe is synonymous with Pastorship) is only authoritative in that it is a called and ordained servant of Christ. What determines this authority isn't man, but Christ, which is why the unity under the Bishop is considered so important. However, this also means that for those who do not possess a connection to the Roman Catholic or Eastern Orthodox, they still retain the same authority through Christ, who is their true Bishop.

In short, all Christians have a Bishop... but not all Christians have a bishop.

Quote:
And how could Paul call the Church "the pillar and ground of truth" if he's referring to some invisible body?


In the same manner that Christ is the Cornerstone of His Church. As we know, He is presently sitting at the Right Hand of the Father and not walking the earth. Yet, we are still founded in Him, even though we don't see Him visibly walking around our planet.

Quote:
Of course, if you don't believe that there is one Church that has kept the Faith without erring, you're pretty much stuck with the "invisible Church;" I however, believe that the Church that Christ founded through His Apostles still exists, and still holds fast to the "faith that was once delivered to the saints.


See, when a Lutheran says "I believe that the Church that Christ founded through His Apostles still exists," and they do, we believe that quite perfectly describes the whole Christian Church not just those who agree with our interpretation. A Roman Catholic or an Eastern Orthodox is just as much a part of the true Christian Church as a Lutheran from the Missouri Synod or a Baptist or a Methodist.

The Church has never erred, but men have. The invisible Church is present in the visible Church, but the two are not the same. The visible Church is the manifestation of the invisible Church by the gathering around the Word and Sacraments. It is a spontaneous outbreak of God's Kingdom into the world, yet God's Kingdom has never departed. What is hidden is made manifest, in a temporal sense, in the visible Church, but it is not made manifest in its Eternal Fullness. The true Fullness is the Communion of Saints gathered around the Throne of the Lamb.
metallurge  - re:   |2009-07-24 21:57:14
emperorbma wrote:
Like I said, if I were really calling you arrogant, I'd have to call myself the archbishop of hubris. :P
Why stop there? I'd go all the way for the Holy BMAn Emperor of Hubris? ;-)

(this is merely a lame attempt of humor, and in no way implies I actually believe it)
emperorbma   |2009-07-24 23:12:16
Quote:
Holy BMAn Emperor of Hubris


Interesting, it also almost sounds like "the man" if you read it with that trailing 'n'.  :P
emperorbma   |2009-07-21 17:39:14
[N.B. The Confessional Lutheran versus "sola Luther" discussion was removed due to being completely irrelevant to the topic.. so people don't get confused if anyone noticed I mentioned it]
holmegm  - re:   |2009-07-23 09:50:51
CoffeeZombie wrote:
Certainly, Luther and other Reformers could appeal to Tradition in their rejection of the Papacy; the Orthodox Church would agree with them on many of those points. The Papacy? Indulgences? Heck, the whole idea of Purgatory? Even some of what the Roman Church says about Mary! These are things the Orthodox see as innovations in Roman dogma.


The semi-permeable membranes of the various One True Ancient Churches? ;)

This only works if you assume that the EO branch of the tree somehow exists outside of time. It exists in the present, and has been moving along the stream of history like the other branches of the tree.
CoffeeZombie   |2009-07-24 12:29:30
Well, all I can say is that the Orthodox Church considers it's current teachings to be the same as what has been taught "everywhere, always, and by all" as Orthodox doctrine, that we hold to the same "faith that was once delivered unto the saints", without change, since the time of the Apostles. Also, we don't hold that we are a "branch;" the Orthodox Church is the Church.

I don't quite get your point about "moving along the steam of history." On the one hand, yes, time passes; on the other, it is still the same Church.
Entity   |2009-07-24 13:04:05
But certainly you can see the development of doctrine during the years of the early church, so it is hard to say that some things, even the Trinity, have been always taught. It took a number of ecumenical councils to straighten out and define doctrine, which in addition to the 'always', also creates problems with 'by all' and 'everywhere'.

I don't see a problem with developing doctrine or stating something as doctrine which has been believed by the Church (such as the Immaculate Conception or Purgatory).

BTW, the Eastern Orthodox Synod of Jerusalem, held in 1672, declared that the souls of some "depart into Hades, and there endure the punishment due to the sins they have committed. But they are aware of their future release from there, and are delivered by the Supreme Goodness, through the prayers of the Priests, and the good works which the relatives of each do for their Departed; especially the unbloody Sacrifice benefiting the most; which each offers particularly for his relatives that have fallen asleep, and which the Catholic and Apostolic Church offers daily for all alike. Of course, it is understood that we do not know the time of their release. We know and believe that there is deliverance for such from their direful condition, and that before the common resurrection and judgment, but when we know not."
CoffeeZombie   |2009-07-24 14:04:39
My understanding is that the Orthodox Church does not believe in a "development of doctrine." The teachings handed down from the Councils do not define anything new; at the most, they clarify what has always been believed.

St. Athansius, for example, did not just make an argument from Scripture that Christ is God; he also made an argument from Tradition. He pointed out the way we address Christ and speak of Christ in the Liturgy and said that if Christ is not God, then we are blaspheming (IIRC).

Speaking of the Trinity, the Church has always worshiped (as we say in the Liturgy) "the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit." As best I understand, this is a very ancient formulation, existing in the earliest Liturgies. Maybe we didn't have the clarification of the "persons" terminology and such, but the Church has always placed the Spirit on an equal level with the Father and the Son. So it would not be correct to say that the doctrine of the Trinity developed in the Councils.

Nestorius objected to the phrase Theotokos because the Church was already saying it.

In each case, the heretic whose teaching was refuted was shown to be either an innovator, teaching some new doctrine, or having misunderstood what the Church believes.

Finally, regarding the Synod of Jerusalem, just because a Synod says something doesn't make it so. It has to be accepted by the Church. Similarly, look as the Iconoclast Controversy. The first council that was held regarding it affirmed the Iconoclast position; it wasn't until later that another council was held that refuted it. One council was regarded as an Ecumenical Council (which even Rome accepts) and the other is largely forgotten.

Similarly, there was once a council at which the bishops (all but one, IIRC) agreed to join under Rome, but the people did not accept this council.

I don't know much about the Synod of Jerusalem's 1672 declaration; I'm curious what, for example, the Russian Church had to say about that (or the Greek Church, etc.).
CoffeeZombie   |2009-07-24 14:21:49
Oh, by the way, the "that which has been believed, everywhere, always, and by all" is from the writings of St. Vincent of Lerins, who is, I believe, also venerated in the Roman Catholic Church.
emperorbma   |2009-07-24 13:51:22
Quote:
Well, all I can say is that the Orthodox Church considers it's current teachings to be the same as what has been taught "everywhere, always, and by all" as Orthodox doctrine, that we hold to the same "faith that was once delivered unto the saints", without change, since the time of the Apostles.


Yeah, but you see, that is the Protestant's basis of the sola Scriptura doctrine in a nutshell. We believe that that the Scriptures are the "faith and doctrines once delivered unto the saints and unchanged since the time of the Apostles."

From history, we can see the fact that Church dogmas and councils have changed, at times even contradicting positions it held in the past. What has not changed, however, is the message of salvation by grace and through Christ, the message which is found only in the Scripture and lived out in the life of the Christian Church, despite whatever else her visible members taught.

Quote:
Also, we don't hold that we are a "branch;" the Orthodox Church is the Church.


Is this not basically saying "we're the only True (TM) Christians?" Some might suggest that this position is beyond arrogance...

Don't get me wrong, I understand the necessity of keeping sound doctrine and I fully agree that the Church should be established with a common consensus of sound doctrine. However, one of the key recoveries during the Reformation is that the Church is not reckoned to be tied to one visible institution, but it is the body of all genuine believers in Christ without any distinction on the basis of whether they call the Pope or the Archbishop of Moscow/Constantinople/Antioch or the pastor of a small rural church their chief minister of Word and Sacrament, because they are all united in one Lord Jesus Christ who is, after all, the True Pastor and True Bishop of all souls.
CoffeeZombie   |2009-07-24 14:14:34
I'm just going to respond here to the "we're the only True Christians" bit.

My understanding is that the Church acknowledges those who believe in Christ to be Christians. In fact, in the OCA, if you have been baptized in a Trinitarian confession, then you do not have to be re-baptized to join the Church; you are only Chrismated (in the Orthodox Church, Chrismation occurs immediately after Baptism, unlike in Catholicism where Chrismation (known there as Confirmation, IIRC) is withheld until the child is older; hence the Orthodox Church communes infants and the Catholics do not).

The way we understand it is more in the sense of Fullness. We don't deny that non-Orthodox believe in Christ, and we refer to them as Christians. We acknowledge the sincerity of their beliefs, etc., but their beliefs are, you could say, incomplete. Only in Orthodoxy is the fullness of the faith found. And so we don't say to Baptists, or Catholics, or Lutherans, "You're wrong, wrong, wrong, wrong." We say, "Hey, we agree on a lot of things; we both believe in God, Father Son and Holy Spirit, etc., but you're missing a few things. Here they are."

You may say that is arrogance; perhaps you perceive it that way. Then again, a Muslim may think it's arrogant if a Christian says Christ is the only way to heaven. So, what if we're right? Is it arrogant to speak the truth?
emperorbma   |2009-07-24 16:55:39
Quote:
You may say that is arrogance; perhaps you perceive it that way. Then again, a Muslim may think it's arrogant if a Christian says Christ is the only way to heaven. So, what if we're right? Is it arrogant to speak the truth?


Well, I did try to be careful and said only "some might find this arrogant." I had a feeling that this sort of understanding might have been implicit, and if I assumed it was arrogant I'd be criticizing myself as well since Lutherans have a similar enough position.

Like what you describe, Lutherans view all who confess Christ, and maintain the doctrine of the Triune God, as Christians and we accept baptisms done "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit" as valid. Nonetheless, we do not commune infants, based on the understanding that those who "commune without discerning the Body" are doing so unto their own spiritual harm, hence being why we await their confirmation. (Confirmation is also rite, unlike in Catholicism where it is a Sacrament, owing to the difference of those definitions...)  

Finally, we actually believe that all Christians, insofar as they are Christians, are technically pursuing what the Book of Concord teaches, since it contains truths essential to all of Christianity. Obviously, some may deny the wording, but all who are Christian will follow the intended Spirit to some extent, since it is considered a "faithful and true interpretation" of the faith. We wouldn't go so far as the term Fullness, since we don't believe ourselves to be The Church (only one visible manifestation of it), but we do believe we are one of the more faithful manifestations of it.  (What Christian group doesn't, honestly... though)

Like I said, if I were really calling you arrogant, I'd have to call myself the archbishop of hubris. :P
SteveGus   |2009-07-22 10:40:33
As I understand it, there's tradition and there's "Tradition".

And, strictly speaking, a rejection of polygamy is not a part of the Christian faith. When the New Testament wants leaders of congregations to have only one wife, that implies openness to the possibility that some members might have more than one. Polygamists who convert to Christianity are not obliged by the Christian faith to abandon their other wives or husbands. This is a cultural matter, like the prohibition on eating cats, dogs, and horses, despite the fact that they're a part of this nutritious breakfast according to the New Testament.

Now, leading aside the debate between a "regulative" and a "normative" principles of worship, Protestants can have traditions without having "Tradition". Protestants are not obliged to discard the past, and customs will inevitably arise. But the Roman Catholic "Tradition" is a separate source of revelation, separate from (or including but not limited to) Scripture.

Catholic "Tradition" is rather like the Book of Mormon, in that sense. But at least I can check out the Book of Mormon and find out what it says for myself. The Catholic "Tradition" is a bit harder to pin down.
CoffeeZombie  - re:   |2009-07-22 11:35:34
SteveGus wrote:
And, strictly speaking, a rejection of polygamy is not a part of the Christian faith. When the New Testament wants leaders of congregations to have only one wife, that implies openness to the possibility that some members might have more than one. Polygamists who convert to Christianity are not obliged by the Christian faith to abandon their other wives or husbands. This is a cultural matter, like the prohibition on eating cats, dogs, and horses, despite the fact that they're a part of this nutritious breakfast according to the New Testament.


It's my understanding that the Orthodox Church does reject polygamy. Of course, since we believe that marriage is eternal, we treat remarrying after the death of a spouse like remarrying after divorce...a second marriage is usually allowed, but the service for a second marriage is very penitential, unlike the service for a first marriage, which is very celebratory.

The fullness of the faith is only one marriage. Second marriages are allowed because of our weakness. Second, parallel marriages are not allowed.

Granted, in the case of a man with many wives becoming Christian, there may be the exercise of economia allowing him to keep all his wives, or something else may be worked out. But that would be an exception to the rule, and would be on a case-by-case basis, probably referred to the local bishop.
holmegm  - re: re:   |2009-07-23 09:01:11
CoffeeZombie wrote:
Of course, since we believe that marriage is eternal, we treat remarrying after the death of a spouse like remarrying after divorce...a second marriage is usually allowed, but the service for a second marriage is very penitential, unlike the service for a first marriage, which is very celebratory.

The fullness of the faith is only one marriage. Second marriages are allowed because of our weakness. Second, parallel marriages are not allowed.


How is that squared with what Jesus says about marriage not being eternal?
WebbedFeetOfClay   |2009-07-23 16:12:39
it doesn't say marriage isn't eternal.
Christ says: "At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage"

This still squares perfectly with Orthodox doctrine. They aren't remarrying, at the resurrection because they're still married. If resurrection is of our totality, body and soul etc. and when two individuals enter into holy matrimony they join body and soul (one flesh etc. etc.) it's only reasonable that this spiritual bond (united by God) would remain in the restoration and continuation of life.
(If death truly 'did us part' on a matrimonial level, wouldn't baptism end marriage.)

Honestly, I'm kind of happy you posed that question, because it had been something I'd had some difficulty with, until you poked me to rethink and pray about it, and pretty suddenly it all starts to make sense, rather beautifully.
holmegm  - re:   |2009-07-25 19:48:03
WebbedFeetOfClay wrote:
it doesn't say marriage isn't eternal.
Christ says: "At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage"

This still squares perfectly with Orthodox doctrine. They aren't remarrying, at the resurrection because they're still married. If resurrection is of our totality, body and soul etc. and when two individuals enter into holy matrimony they join body and soul (one flesh etc. etc.) it's only reasonable that this spiritual bond (united by God) would remain in the restoration and continuation of life.


Thank you for discussing this with me ... it's a matter that is confusing for me too.

So, given the above, which one is her husband then? All of them?

I think that I understand Jesus' answer in light of the Protestant understanding; I still don't understand His answer in the context of the EO understanding you outline above.
WebbedFeetOfClay   |2009-07-25 23:52:31
ok. back-tracking just a touch. I should warn that much of what I'm saying is speculative, and, the more I'm reading into it, the more I'm seeing that this is far from a universally accepted point of Orthodox doctrine.

that said, His answer, other than a general "is john a prophet" baffle for a question that is not intended for thought and theology but intended to create scandal (a primary quality of most of the exchanges in the unit as well), he's deconstructing levirate marriage, while also reaffirming the fallen nature of practical marriages allowed from the hardness of our hearts. A marriage can be broken (albeit oughtn't be ideally) and such remarriages certainly qualify as breaking. If the marriage is already broken before the kingdom how can it continue. It's precisely this brokenness that is unangelic about the whole deal.

(though still the bigger part being a redirection from their deceptive question toward a demonstration of the truth of the resurrection (a far more important truth))

this is rambly to the point of twisting me....i may return to clarify...
metallurge  - re:   |2009-07-26 00:25:18
WebbedFeetOfClay wrote:
It's precisely this brokenness that is unangelic about the whole deal.
Respectfully, I cannot agree. Plainly, the reference is to angels being asexual creatures, not genuinely monogamous creatures.

WebbedFeetOfClay wrote:
(though still the bigger part being a redirection from their deceptive question toward a demonstration of the truth of the resurrection (a far more important truth))
On this, we agree. Marriage is a secondary point that Jesus is making. His primary point is clearly a potent criticism of the Sadducees' views of the resurrection.
WebbedFeetOfClay   |2009-07-26 07:19:08
sometimes, especially when tired, my head, going in five directions at once, ends up finding a way to articulate things that manages to express none of them. The "unangelic" comment is a good example.

the more I'm thinking of it the more I'm understanding why a lot of this is left to speculation instead of doctrine. Ideally, a sacramental marriage (which one could place as a contrast to simply legal marriage) is the union of 3, Christ, man, and wife. The union is ideally becoming one. The implications of the continuance of this union in the sweet hereafter, while some call it dissolution, seems like it could rather soundly be called perfection. The union is made perfect, but for that matter the union amongst the saints and God is made perfect, all being One.
Perhaps the larger issue is our deficient capacity for estimation of heaven, that we fail to quite grasp the infiniteness and greatness of it all, and substitute our small earthen reference. And it seems that's precisely what Christ is doing in redirecting the question. He doesn't answer because the basis of the question underestimates and misconstrues the resurrection, rather he draws the thinking higher.
metallurge   |2009-07-26 00:20:41
This is indeed an interesting passage, worthy of much contemplation. I am certainly not speaking in this post from an EO understanding. Recent events in my own life have brought this issue back toward the front of my theological contemplations. I am not yet satisfied with my understanding. So, with all those disclaimers, here it is...

The woman's marriages were legal. It is a legitimate question according to Jewish understanding of marriage, that the Sadducees asked. Jesus' initial response is that the questioners are mistaken, and then he amplifies that they understand neither their Scriptures, nor the power of God.

What does He mean? Is this a criticism of the question itself, or of the questioners themselves?

Jesus' following answer, speaking of a time after the resurrection, when people neither marry nor are given in marriage, but rather are like the angels, is a bit mysterious. For the marriage scenario posed in the initial question involved marriages which took place before the resurrection. So, on first glance, it seems as though Jesus is not directly answering the question.

If we suppose He is, however, indeed answering the question, it seems as though the comment about angels reinforces an interpretation that says that marriage is temporal. In the resurrection, it seems, marriage is not necessary and/or not relevant and/or not binding and/or not possible. The human nature, post-resurrection, it does seem, does not involve marriage.

Now, if marriage is indeed sacramental, this poses a bit of a problem, for what the Church binds on earth is apparently to be loosed in heaven. Perhaps there is a technicality here, in that the scenario involves a Jewish context, not a Church context. But that poses its own serious interpretive problems.

I would say that Jesus' initial response is a criticism of the questioners, since the Sadducees did not even believe in the resurrection. That, I believe, is what Jesus is initially criticizing.

Then, I do believe that Jesus answers the question by describing a situation post-resurrection where marriage is not relevant.

Which seems, incidentally, to do great harm to the whole "one flesh" theology which appeals back to Genesis 3, and which argues that marriage is an inherent part of the created nature of man. At best, it would seem, marriage (the union of two into one) is a foreshadowing of the union between God and man.

This is also interesting in that the resurrection in this way is pictured as being different in character than the garden was. Apparently, the human nature post-resurrection is different when it comes to marriage, than it was before the fall. That much we can say.
holmegm  - re:   |2009-07-26 08:50:19
metallurge wrote:
Which seems, incidentally, to do great harm to the whole "one flesh" theology which appeals back to Genesis 3, and which argues that marriage is an inherent part of the created nature of man. At best, it would seem, marriage (the union of two into one) is a foreshadowing of the union between God and man.


Are the two really opposed, though? That part of our nature was created to be a shadow, a type, of the marriage of the Lamb. No? Can't it be both a fundamental part of our created nature and a shadow?

Marriage is no more irrelevant because of being a shadow than Temple worship was irrelevant for its being a shadow before its time of culmination, IMHO.
Entity   |2009-07-22 11:51:38
SteveGus,

Could you point out a normal Protestant denomination that allows polygamy? If they don't allow it, on what basis do they not?

I actually would say that many Protestants do practice polygamy, as there are many that have married another while still having a spiritually valid first marriage. However, they would not term it polygamy and their denominations would still prohibit polygamy witnessed by their ministers.

I imagine it will not be long before some denomination does allow polygamy. Although, is is polygamy when three men are married to each other?
SteveGus   |2009-07-22 13:27:23
I don't know of any off the top of my head. They may exist, at in mission areas such as Africa or the South Pacific. Whether this is enough to push them outside the boundaries of "normal" more or less begs the question.

Polygamy (as understood according to normal usage, which would exclude "serial monogamy") generally is forbidden by law in the areas where the Protestant churches I'm most familiar with operate. These churches seem to defer to local laws on the existence or validity of marriages.
CoffeeZombie   |2009-07-22 13:39:16
In my experience, the reason local laws forbid polygamy is because those laws were fashioned by Protestants (and maybe some Catholics), and if the local laws changed to allow polygamy, the Protestants would be up in arms over it.
SteveGus   |2009-07-23 00:21:00
FWIW, St. Augustine calls monogamy the "use of Rome" - i.e. a Roman cultural custom, not a Christian custom. He specifically refrains from condemning the Old Testament patriarchs for their polygamy, although he imagines that their plural wives were on account of pure zeal to procreate rather than lust. I am not sure that this assertion can be reconciled with the actual accounts.
emperorbma   |2009-07-23 18:26:11
Funny thing about this is that the Protestant Reformers took a neutral stance to polygamy because Scripture itself has a neutral stance. I wonder how the anti-polygamy sentiment became so entrenched, then...
metallurge   |2009-07-23 19:21:48
As a reaction against the Mormons?
emperorbma   |2009-07-23 19:31:57
That's possible... but the anti-polygamy trend seems to predate the Mormons.
Jim   |2009-07-21 11:57:22
The author isn't dealing with reformers from 500 years ago but rather with contemporary thinkers. As such, your criticism doesn't do justice to his argument.

Granted, I take issue with comparing "educated Catholics speaking out of the Magisterial teaching of the Church" with James Dobson and the Bible Answer Man; but I can understand where he's coming from: quasi-educated lay folk.
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